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August 13, 2006

Why do prices end in .99?

I099_fnt_00

Tim Harford, in his "Dear Economist" feature in this weekend's Financial Times, offers an explanation far afield from that I've always held as received knowledge, to wit: that it's to make you feel you're getting a better deal than if the dollar or pound amount were raised by one digit.

Wrong-o, says Harford.

Short column shorter: he says it's to force sales clerks and shop assistants to open their registers to make change, thereby lessening the chance that the customer, offering exact change of $5 or whatever, will receive the book in an "off the books" transaction, with the store employee pocketing the bill.

Most interesting and maybe even correct.

Here's the piece from the FT.

    Where shoplifters should work

    Dear Economist: I notice that your book "The Undercover Economist" has a list price of £17.99. In it you emphasise that rationality and calculation underlie economic behaviour. If so, why do so many prices end in .99? Do consumers really think that £17.99 is only £17?

    Daniella Acker, via e-mail

    Dear Daniella: A more likely explanation — from Steven Landsburg, an economist at the University of Rochester — is that these prices are designed not to exploit incompetence but to fight dishonesty.

    A typical bookshop will experience a certain amount of shoplifting, especially of products as tempting as my book. Nobody is better placed to benefit from shoplifting than the shop assistants.

    If books — or any products — were roundly priced at £10, £15 or £20, then customers would frequently offer the correct change. In such cases it would be simple for the shop assistant to bag the item without ringing it through the till, and to pocket the cash.

    The book would appear to have been stolen by the customer, but this is a far more attractive proposition than trying to fence a stolen copy of "A La Recherche Du Temps Perdu" or even "The Undercover Economist" and the risk is probably lower. All rational shoplifters should get jobs in shops.

    However, the more awkward the pricing, the more unlikely those thieving till-jockeys are to be able to pull off the trick. The customer will want change and is likely to challenge a shop assistant who reaches into his pocket to make it.

    If this theory is true, then we should not expect to see those 99p endings in shops manned by their owners, nor at internet shops where shoplifting is impossible.

    I note that the price of my book on Amazon ends not in .99 but .78.

....................

Well?

99_bud_06

Is he right?

August 13, 2006 at 02:01 PM | Permalink


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Comments

Some internet stores use the cents column as an easy way to flag sales items. REI, for example, has all its clearance items priced at $X.03. There are obviously lots of potential permutations.

Posted by: Mike | Aug 15, 2006 12:29:30 PM

I remembered something from long ago about a federal excise tax being the reason for the 9/10 ending, but no one knows for sure where it began. Here are the different arguments, provided by Daniel Engber on Slate.com: http://www.slate.com/id/2125099/

"No one seems to know exactly where or when the practice originated, but everyone agrees gas was sold at the pump in fractions of a cent at least as far back as the 1920s or 1930s, when automobile culture really began to take off.

Some say that the fractional pricing was introduced in response to federal gasoline taxes that were themselves assessed in parts of a cent. Others say that tiny price changes of a tenth of a cent were more significant back when a gallon of gasoline didn't cost much more than a dime. And everyone agrees that pricing at nine-tenths of a cent gives the station owner the same advantage a grocer might get for charging $1.99 rather than a whopping $2.00 for a bottle of sparkling water.

Whatever its origin, the practice is now built in to the pricing system. Federal and state taxes on gasoline still work out to a fraction of a cent per gallon and get paid when distributors purchase fuel from the refineries. The distributors who sell to the filling stations often set their prices such that the total after tax ends with nine-tenths of a cent. The station owner who buys it can then just mark up the price by a few whole cents and pass along the nine-tenths to the consumer.

In the 1980s the government of Iowa abolished nine-tenths-pricing on the grounds that it was deceptive but then rescinded the ban four years later."

Posted by: Shawn Lea | Aug 14, 2006 4:59:49 PM

This makes no sense due to sales tax. A $5 price tage will still cost $5.30 (more or less depending on which state you are in). I totally agree that it's to give the illusion of being cheaper. What I want to know is... who or why did gas prices start using 9/10ths of a cent!? Talk about misleading... lets make up a denomination that doesn't exist (1/10th) so that we can mark our price down one extra penny.

Posted by: cyen | Aug 14, 2006 4:17:17 PM

Where does the 9/10ths of a cent at the end of gas prices fit in all of this?

Posted by: Marcus Jimenez | Aug 14, 2006 10:13:53 AM

In the UK it's called "Charm pricing", which rather suggests it's more about giving the impression that it's cheaper than it is instead of making the cashier open the till.

Some time I might have a fossick around to see if I can find its use predating the invention of cash registers. At a guess I'd say it would.

For that matter, whatever the original reason, it's clearly now done to appear cheap, you've only go to look at the prices of new cars to see that. VERY few people walk into a car dealer and buy a new car with folding cash and the chances of the salesman pocketing a few grand are slim.

Posted by: Skipweasel | Aug 13, 2006 6:33:50 PM

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